71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper with Answer Key
The 71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper is an essential resource for candidates preparing for the Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) Preliminary Examination. Solving the complete paper helps you understand the latest exam pattern, question trends, and the overall difficulty level of the examination. On this page, you can access all 150 questions from the 71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper along with the official answer key in a simple and easy-to-read format.
Whether you are preparing for your first attempt or revising before the examination, practicing 71st BPSC Previous Year Questions is one of the most effective ways to improve your preparation. After attempting all the questions, you can verify your responses using the official answer key provided at the end of this page. If you are looking for detailed explanations, concept-based analysis, and option-wise discussion for every question, you can explore our BPSC Previous Year Questions Explanation Course.
Quick Information
| Particular | Details |
|---|---|
| Examination | 71st BPSC Preliminary Examination |
| Date of Exam | 13 Sep 2025 |
| Conducting Body | Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) |
| Paper | General Studies (Preliminary) |
| Booklet Series | E |
| Total Questions | 150 |
| Question Type | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
| Marks | 150 |
| Negative Marking | Yes (0.33) |
| Answer Key | Official Answer Key Provided |
| Detailed Explanation | Available in Premium Course |
71st BPSC Pre GS Questions
The 71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering subjects such as History, Geography, Indian Polity, Economy, General Science, Environment, Current Affairs, and Bihar Special. Attempt all questions before checking the official answer key provided at the end of this page to evaluate your performance. Start solving the 71st BPSC Pre GS Questions below.
1. In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.
(A) MICROSCOPE
(B) TELESCOPE
(C) STETHOSCOPE
(D) PERISCOPE
2. SPRING is written in code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?
(A) OMEFPA
(B) OMPGNC
(C) MPQSUL
(D) SEGRFT
3. Mukesh said to his friend, “Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter.” How is Mukesh related to Rita?
(A) Father
(B) Son-in-law
(C) Son
(D) Father-in-law
4. Ram goes North, turns right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?
(A) EAST
(B) SOUTH
(C) NORTH
(D) WEST
5. Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?
(A) Mahinder
(B) Mohinder
(C) Mohender
(D) Mahendra
6. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?
(A) 17th
(B) 15th
(C) 18th
(D) 16th
7. If + means ×, × means −, ÷ means + and − means ÷, then 175 − 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 equals to:
(A) 77
(B) 87
(C) 140
(D) 70
8. Rahul is 3 times old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four years’ time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?
(A) 10, 50
(B) 9, 52
(C) 9, 45
(D) 9, 50
9. Find the missing number from the given alternatives:

(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 20
(D) 25
10. RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6 and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in the code language?
(A) @$86%7
(B) %7@%6#
(C) 86@$#7
(D) 8@7$%6
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11. How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above
12. Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnia, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above
13. Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above
14. Which organization recognized the Nagi Bird Sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) Bird Life International
(D) More than one of the above
15. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organized?
(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above
16. What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
(A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above
17. Afrikaners indicate the people:
(A) Of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
(B) Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
(C) The white minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above
18. What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund?
(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Baoli
(C) Chauki Bavdi
(D) More than one of the above
19. What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above
20. What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
(A) Music Unite Us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United By Music
(D) More than one of the above
21. What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
(A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B) It marked ISRO’s 101st launch from Sriharikota
(C) It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D) More than one of the above
22. What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?
(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Its theme was : ‘Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet’
(C) The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
(D) None of the above
23. The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
(A) Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
(B) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
(C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
(D) More than one of the above
24. Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian’ won which other prestigious award?
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) PEN America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above
25. Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?
(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above
26. According to the latest UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above
27. In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above
28. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above
29. Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
(A) Halaro
(B) Chello Show
(C) Kutch Express
(D) More than one of the above
30. Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above
31. Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
(A) Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army’s Air Defence (AAD) system
(B) It seamlessly integrates India’s larger C4ISR
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation
(D) More than one of the above
32. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above
33. Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
(A) January 15
(B) January 27
(C) February 10
(D) More than one of the above
34. What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
(A) Iight of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above
35. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Satluj
(D) More than one of the above
36. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?
- CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
- Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge.
- It considers male literacy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
- It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above
37. Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India’s export during April–September 2024–25?
(A) Petroleum Products
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Basmati Rice
(D) More than one of the above
38. According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
(A) The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
(B) Top three states having largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
(C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
(D) More than one of the above
39. Which of the following countries had greater share than India in global services export in 2023?
(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above
40. Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare?
(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates.
(B) It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) for parents and children.
(C) The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages.
(D) None of the above.
41. Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above
42. Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above
43. Before the launch of Kisan RiN Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above
44. India’s foreign exchange reserves:
(A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
(B) Are seventh largest in the world
(C) Decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
(D) More than one of the above
45. As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
46. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme | 1) Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24 |
| b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) | 2) Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries |
| c) The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative | 3) Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy |
| d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) | 4) Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021 |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) More than one of the above
47. According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
(A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22.
(B) Among the 36 States and Union Territories, 90% States have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (for all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent.
(C) The share of female workers in agriculture has decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above.
48. Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
(A) One Nation, One Subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission
(D) More than one of the above
49. Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from ____ in 2020-21 to ____ in 2022-23.
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 27.3%, 30.1%
(C) 35.1%, 38.2%
(D) More than one of the above
50. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry?
- Around 87% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in a few major States like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
- Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near to the ports to support exports.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) More than one of the above
51. What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
(A) To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas.
(B) To provide vocational training to teachers of senior-secondary level.
(C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
(D) More than one of the above.
52. Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory enablers for support
(C) International market expansion schemes
(D) More than one of the above
53. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24?
(A) Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar’s GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%.
(C) The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above.
54. Consider the following statements:
- The proportion of the young population (0–19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041.
- Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041.
- The elderly population (60+ years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) More than one of the above
55. According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs.
(B) The majority of women are self-employed, often working as helpers in household enterprises.
(C) Majority of women were engaged in secondary sector.
(D) More than one of the above.
56. The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
(A) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People
57. Attorney General of India:
(A) Is not entitled to audience except the Supreme Court.
(B) He gives advice to the President on legal matters.
(C) Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament.
(D) Is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
58. Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the Constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to Concurrent List?
- Protection of wildlife
- Income on Agriculture
- Tax on Electricity consumption or sale
- Price control
Out of these:
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 4 is correct
(D) Only 2 is correct
59. Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?
- Organization of Village Panchayats
- Common Civil Code
- Promotion of cottage industry in rural areas
- Right to work
(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
60. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Allocation of seats in the Council of States — 4th Schedule
(B) Forms of oath — 3rd Schedule
(C) Administration of Scheduled Areas — 6th Schedule
(D) Union List — 7th Schedule
61. Consider the following statements about Central Government:
- Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.
- Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Out of these:
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
62. What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
(A) Business in the Legislature shall be transacted only in the official language of the State or in Hindi or in English.
(B) Advocate General has right to vote.
(C) It can discuss the conduct of any Judge of the High Court.
(D) Validity of proceedings shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity.
63. The Constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that:
- The interest of the general public is safeguarded.
- Prevailing social value and also social needs are not bar.
- Directive principles can be bypassed collectively.
Out of these:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 4 is correct
(D) Only 1 is correct
64. Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the Finance Commission?
(A) President of India
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) Parliament by Act
(D) Union Cabinet
65. Consider the following statements:
- The summoning of the House means convocation.
- Prorogation ends a session.
- Dissolution terminates a House.
- Prorogation of session can be effected by the leader of the House alone.
Out of these which is not true?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 4
66. Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Chairman of Block Committee
(C) Chairman of District Council
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor
67. The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:
- Enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries.
- Incentivising foreign investments for domestic production.
Out of these:
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
68. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(A) To increase agriculture production
(B) To increase employment
(C) To increase people’s political awareness
(D) To enable people to participate in development administration
69. What is true about Censure Motion?
(A) It is not different from No-confidence Motion.
(B) It is different from the No-confidence Motion.
(C) It is not mandatory to mention the reasons in this motion.
(D) Permission of the House is not essential to present it.
70. Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
(A) Dispute between Centre and State
(B) Dispute among States
(C) Protection of Fundamental Rights
(D) Protection from the violation of the Constitution
71. Which Indian leader for the first time used the safety-valve theory to attack the Moderates in the Congress?
(A) Bipin Chandra Pal
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
72. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Minto
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Wavell
73. Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?
(A) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(B) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
(C) Har Dayal
(D) Shyamji Krishna Varma
74. Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?
(A) Dunlop Smith
(B) Minto
(C) William Morris
(D) Theodore Beck
75. “The Young India”, a Nationalist paper, was started by:
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
76. Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?
(A) Welby Commission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) Simon Commission
(D) Cabinet Mission
77. Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, “Chalo Delhi”?
(A) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Mohan Singh
(C) Shah Nawaz Khan
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
78. “We shall either free India or die in the attempt…” who said it?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) V. D. Savarkar
79. Who raised the cry “Divide and Quit”?
(A) M. A. Ansari
(B) M. A. Jinnah
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
80. Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions – India and Pakistan?
(A) Govt. of India Act, 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above
81. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) M. A. Ansari
82. Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between:
(A) Indian Government and Gandhiji
(B) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
(C) Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
(D) Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh
83. Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
(A) Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Sahajanand Saraswati
(C) Acharya Narendra Dev
(D) Baba Ram Chandra
84. Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?
(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari
(B) Ram Narain of Bikrampur
(C) Satyendra of Gorakhari
(D) None of the above
85. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
(A) Anugraha Narain Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishna Singh
(D) None of the above
86. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II
(Places in Ancient India) (Presently in which State)
a) Karnasuvarna 1. Maharashtra
b) Pragjyotish 2. Gujarat
c) Girnar 3. West Bengal
d) Pratishthan 4. Assam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
87. Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?
(A) Ghosha
(B) Gargi
(C) Apala
(D) Vishvavara
88. Match List I with List II.
List-I (Event/Place) List-II (Connected with Person)
a) Chola Gangam Lake 1. Chandragupta Maurya
b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra 2. Harshavardhan
c) Assembly at Prayag 3. Rajendra I
d) Sudarshan Lake 4. Ashoka
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
89. Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Balban
90. Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India:
- Sunga
- Maurya
- Kushana
- Kanva
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
a b c d
(A) 2-1-4-3
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 2-1-3-4
91. Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?
(A) Geetavali
(B) Vinay Patrika
(C) Sahitya Lahari
(D) Kavitavali
92. Match List I with List II.
List-I (Building) List-II (Built by)
a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque 1. Qutb-ud-Din Aibak
b) Adhai Din Ka Jhopra 2. Nur Jahan
c) Allahabad Fort 3. Akbar
d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum 4. Babar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
93. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) James Augustus Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle
(B) Dayananda Saraswati — Satyarth Prakash
(C) Ramaswamy Naicker — Justice Party
(D) Jyotirao Phule — Satyashodhak Samaj
94. Match List I with List II.
List-I (Father)
a) Babar
b) Akbar
c) Shah Jahan
d) Jahangir
List-II (Son)
- Salim
- Khusrau
- Kamran
- Murad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
95. Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
96. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?
- He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D.
- He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D.
- On October 21, 1943 A.D. he constituted the Provincial Government of India in Singapore.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
97. Who among the following was not an Acharya in the Tibe (Nalanda) University?
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Kautilya
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Shantirakshit
98. Consider the following events of Modern Indian History:
- Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
- Treaty of Salbai
- Battle of Wandiwash
- Death of Tipu Sultan
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(A) 2-3-4-1
(B) 3-1-2-4
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 3-2-1-4
99. Among the following newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?
(A) Bihar Bandhu
(B) Patna Harkara
(C) Akhbar-e-Bihar
(D) Bihar Herald
100. Match List I with List II.
List-I (Event/Organisation)
a) Champaran Satyagraha
b) Azad Dasta
c) Individual Satyagraha in Bihar 1940
d) Kisan Sabha Bihar
List-II (Related Person)
- Jayaprakash Narayan
- Shyam Narayan Singh
- Sahajanand Saraswati
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
101. Maginot Line exists between which countries?
(A) U.S.A. & Canada
(B) France & Germany
(C) Namibia and Angola
(D) South Korea & North Korea
102. Strait of Hormuz connects –
(A) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
(B) Red Sea to Gulf of Aden
(C) Red Sea to Indian Ocean
(D) Mediterranean Sea to Red Sea
103. Where is “Ground Zero”?
(A) Greenwich
(B) New York
(C) India Point
(D) Sriharikota
104. Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the “Devil’s Neck”?
(A) Isthmus of Panama
(B) Kra Isthmus
(C) Karelian Isthmus
(D) Isthmus of Corinth
105. Ladang refers to –
(A) Shifting Agriculture
(B) Plantation Agriculture
(C) Subsistence type of Agriculture
(D) Dry farming
106. Which is the largest river Island in the world?
(A) Srirangam Island
(B) Majuli Island
(C) Bhavani Island
(D) Agatti Island
107. The second largest river basin of India is –
(A) Mahanadi river basin
(B) Narmada river basin
(C) Godavari river basin
(D) Kaveri river basin
108. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
(A) Vishnuprayag
(B) Karnaprayag
(C) Rudraprayag
(D) Devprayag
109. The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are –
(A) Kavaratti and New Moore
(B) Bitra and Kavaratti
(C) Pamban and Barren
(D) Narcondam and Barren
110. The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
(A) Sports Goods
(B) Musical Instruments
(C) Laddoo
(D) Scissors
111. In India the Temperate Forest Research Center is in which city?
(A) Shimla
(B) Ranchi
(C) Srinagar
(D) Dehradun
112. Kanha National Park is established in –
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Assam
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
113. ‘Loktak’ is a
(A) Valley
(B) Lake
(C) River
(D) Mountain series
114. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
(A) Valmiki National Park
(B) Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) None of these
115. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?
(A) Cow
(B) Bull
(C) Buffalo
(D) Horse
116. In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?
(A) 2005
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2014
117. Karmanasa river originates in –
(A) Kaimur District
(B) Vaishali District
(C) Patna District
(D) Bikram District
118. Bihar produces ________ % of pyrite of whole India?
(A) 75
(B) 85
(C) 95
(D) 100
119. Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
(A) Gaya District
(B) Jamui District
(C) Nalanda District
(D) Bhagalpur District
120. Most of the Bihar comes under which of the following climatic type?
(A) Subtropical Monsoon
(B) Tropical savannah
(C) Hot and dry
(D) Hot and Semi Arid
121. We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal frictional force will be:
(A) 100 Newtons
(B) 200 Newtons
(C) 300 Newtons
(D) 400 Newtons
122. A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
(A) 11000 Newtons
(B) 12000 Newtons
(C) 13000 Newtons
(D) 14000 Newtons
123. Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be:
(A) 9×105
(B) 8×106
(C) 9×108
(D) 105
124. In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
(A) Steel
(B) Water
(C) Air
(D) Hydrogen
125. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
(A) The principle of conservation of energy is violated
(B) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
(C) Gravitational force is violated
(D) Gravitational force is not violated
126. A pair of Oxen exerts a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:
(A) 1900 Joule
(B) 2000 Joule
(C) 2100 Joule
(D) 2200 Joule
127. The focal distance of a plane mirror is
(A) +1 cm
(B) –1 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) Infinity
128. Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?
(A) I²R
(B) IR²
(C) VI
(D) V²/R
129. In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit:
(A) Very low
(B) Do not change
(C) Increases very high
(D) Continuously changing
130. What is the device to protect equipment’s from the electric shock?
(A) Fuse
(B) Generator
(C) Motor
(D) Current controller
131. pH value of 0.1 NHCl solution is approximately:
(A) 1.0
(B) 11.0
(C) 10
(D) 2.0
132. Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
(A) Europium doped strontium aluminate
(B) Copper sulphide doped zinc oxide
(C) Barium sulphate doped copper borate
(D) Boron oxide doped copper sulphate
133. Which material is used for smart film?
(A) Indium tin oxide
(B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Zinc chloride
(D) Silica
134. Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
(A) Platinum
(B) Chromium
(C) Iron
(D) Chlorine
135. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Levonorgestrel
(C) Vanlaflexine
(D) Cetirizine
136. Why oil is not stored in galvanized iron pot?
(A) It produce toxic compound
(B) It reduced quality of oil
(C) Corrosion observed
(D) All of the above
137. Which compound is used for increase of octane rating?
(A) Trimethyl hexane
(B) Tetramethyl Oxide
(C) Tetraethyllead
(D) Triethyl toluene
138. Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer:
(A) Polyhydroxy butyl valiline
(B) Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid
(C) Poly (3-Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)
(D) Poly hydroxy butyric acid veratric acid
139. Hormones are secreted by:
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Reproductive glands
(C) Exocrine glands
(D) Endocrine glands
140. Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
(A) Parasitism
(B) Symbiosis
(C) Endosymbiosis
(D) Endoparasitism
141. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
(A) IgG
(B) IgA
(C) IgM
(D) IgE
142. The biological membranes are composed of:
(A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
(B) Lipids only
(C) Proteins only
(D) None of the above
143. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?
(A) UAA
(B) AUG
(C) UUU
(D) UGC
144. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
(A) Vulnerable
(B) Rare
(C) Endangered
(D) Extinct
145. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Barley
(C) Gram
(D) Wheat
146. Xylem in plants is responsible for following function:
(A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
(B) Transport of food
(C) Transport of oxygen and other gases
(D) Transport of essential amino acids
147. Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?
(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bentham and Hooker
(C) A. P. de Candolle
(D) More than one of the above
148. The part which we eat in Mango is:
(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Endocarp
(D) None of the above
149. Ozone day is celebrated on:
(A) 16th September
(B) 5th June
(C) 21st April
(D) 5th December
150. In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is:
(A) Protection
(B) Food
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Increased mineral absorption and disease protection
ANSWER KEY
| Q No. | A Key | Q No. | A Key | Q No. | A Key | Q No. | A Key | Q No. | A Key |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 31 | D | 61 | B | 91 | C | 121 | B |
| 2 | A | 32 | D | 62 | A | 92 | A | 122 | D |
| 3 | D | 33 | B | 63 | A | 93 | A | 123 | C |
| 4 | A | 34 | B | 64 | C | 94 | B | 124 | A |
| 5 | B | 35 | A | 65 | D | 95 | D | 125 | B |
| 6 | D | 36 | A | 66 | D | 96 | Del | 126 | C |
| 7 | A | 37 | C | 67 | C | 97 | B | 127 | D |
| 8 | D | 38 | C | 68 | D | 98 | B | 128 | B |
| 9 | B | 39 | B | 69 | Del | 99 | B | 129 | C |
| 10 | D | 40 | D | 70 | C | 100 | D | 130 | A |
| 11 | Del | 41 | B | 71 | B | 101 | B | 131 | A |
| 12 | C | 42 | A | 72 | C | 102 | A | 132 | A |
| 13 | D | 43 | B | 73 | C | 103 | B | 133 | A |
| 14 | C | 44 | A | 74 | D | 104 | B | 134 | A |
| 15 | B | 45 | B | 75 | Del | 105 | A | 135 | B |
| 16 | A | 46 | C | 76 | C | 106 | B | 136 | D |
| 17 | C | 47 | A | 77 | D | 107 | C | 137 | C |
| 18 | B | 48 | C | 78 | B | 108 | D | 138 | C |
| 19 | B | 49 | B | 79 | B | 109 | D | 139 | D |
| 20 | C | 50 | A | 80 | C | 110 | D | 140 | D |
| 21 | D | 51 | C | 81 | B | 111 | A | 141 | C |
| 22 | D | 52 | C | 82 | A | 112 | C | 142 | A |
| 23 | C | 53 | D | 83 | B | 113 | B | 143 | A |
| 24 | C | 54 | A | 84 | D | 114 | A | 144 | C |
| 25 | B | 55 | B | 85 | D | 115 | B | 145 | A |
| 26 | A | 56 | D | 86 | B | 116 | D | 146 | A |
| 27 | B | 57 | B | 87 | B | 117 | A | 147 | C |
| 28 | B | 58 | A | 88 | A | 118 | Del | 148 | B |
| 29 | C | 59 | C | 89 | C | 119 | B | 149 | A |
| 30 | D | 60 | C | 90 | A | 120 | A | 150 | D |
Detailed Explanation of All 150 Questions
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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
1. Is this the official 71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper?
Yes. This page contains the 71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper based on the official question paper released by the Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC).
2. Does this page include the official answer key?
Yes. The official answer key for the 71st BPSC Pre GS Question Paper is provided at the end of this page so that you can evaluate your performance after attempting all 150 questions.
3. Are detailed explanations available for all questions?
Yes. Detailed explanations for all 150 questions are available through our premium BPSC Previous Year Questions Explanation Course. The course includes option-wise analysis, important concepts, and exam-oriented explanations to help you understand every question thoroughly.
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