69th BPSC Pre GS Question Paper with Answer Key

The 69th BPSC Pre GS Question Paper is an important study resource for candidates preparing for the Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) Preliminary Examination. Solving the complete paper helps you understand the latest exam pattern, the difficulty level of questions, and the topics that are frequently asked in the examination. On this page, you can access all 150 questions from the 69th BPSC Pre GS Question Paper along with the official answer key in a simple and easy-to-read format.

Practicing 69th BPSC Previous Year Questions is one of the most effective ways to improve your preparation, increase accuracy, and build confidence before the examination. After attempting all the questions, you can verify your responses using the official answer key provided at the end of this page. If you want detailed explanations, concept-based analysis, and option-wise discussion for every question, you can explore our BPSC Previous Year Questions Explanation Course.

Quick Information

Particular	Details
Examination	69th BPSC Preliminary Examination
Date of Exam	30. Sep 2023
Conducting Body	Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
Paper	General Studies (Preliminary)
Booklet Series	A
Total Questions	150
Question Type	Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks	150
Negative Marking	Yes (0.33 Mark)
Answer Key	Official Answer Key Provided
Detailed Explanation	Available in Premium Course

69th BPSC Pre GS Questions

The 69th BPSC Pre GS Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering subjects such as History, Geography, Indian Polity, Economy, General Science, Environment, Current Affairs, and Bihar Special. Solving the complete paper helps candidates understand the exam pattern, improve time management, and evaluate their level of preparation for the BPSC Preliminary Examination.

Attempt all 69th BPSC Pre GS Questions before checking the official answer key provided at the end of this page. This will help you assess your performance, identify weak areas, and focus your revision on the topics that matter most for the examination.

1. Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks?

Internet of Things
Edge Computing
Network Slicing

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

2. Match List—I with List—II:

List—I (Space Mission)	List—II (Exploration)
a. Cassini-Huygens	1. Jupiter
b. Juno	2. Saturn and its rings
c. Artemis	3. Venus
d. VERITAS	4. Human Space-flight—Moon to Mars

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4

3. Match List—I with List—II:

List—I (Cloth)	List—II (Origin)
a. Linen	1. Coconut plant
b. Coir	2. Flax plant
c. Mohair	3. Feathers of duck and geese
d. Down	4. Angora goat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A)      1 3 2 4
(B)      4 3 1 2
(C)     2 1 4 3
(D)     4 1 3 2

4. Consider the following statements:

Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm—Taenia solium, Taenia saginata and Taenia asiatica.
When cysts develop in the brain, the condition is referred to as neurocysticercosis (NCC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

5. Which of the following are computer languages?

Cobra
Python
Squirrel
Java

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All of the above

6. What is the full form of GPT in ChatGPT, recently seen in the news?

(A) Glutamic Pyruvic Trans-aminase
(B) GUID Partition Table
(C) Grooved Pegboard Test
(D) Generative Pre-Trained Transformer

7. Which of the following are not the tastes of the tongue?

Sweet
Bitter
Salty
Spicy
Umami
Sour
Pungent

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 2, 5 and 7
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 and 7
(D) 3 and 6

8. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Anorexia : Sleep disorder
Insomnia : Eating disorder
Dyspnoea : Shortness of breath
Anosmia : Partial or full loss of smell

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

9. In the universe, what are pulsars?

(A) A group of stars
(B) Rotating neutron stars
(C) Explosion of a star
(D) Radio waves emitted by a star

10. In the context of lab-grown diamonds (LGDs), what is used as a diamond seed?

(A) White sapphire
(B) Moissanite
(C) Graphite
(D) Cubic zirconia (CZ)

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11. What is the ‘fibre’ used to make bulletproof jackets?

(A) Nylon
(B) Terylene
(C) Tweed
(D) Kevlar

12. What is/are the full form(s) of HMX?

High Melting Explosive
High-Density Monoatomic Xenon
Hedge Monetizing Xenocurrency
Her Majesty’s Explosive

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) 1 and 4

13. What is the name of Tesla’s humanoid robot launched in October 2022?

(A) Sophia
(B) Atlas
(C) Pepper
(D) Optimus

14. What is the ‘Manhattan Project’?

(A) A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons
(B) One of the largest art auctions of the world
(C) A real estate project in New York City
(D) A famous theme park

15. The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of the object should be

(A) at the focus
(B) at the centre of curvature
(C) between the focus and centre of curvature
(D) beyond the centre of curvature

16. A photoelectric cell is a device which

(A) converts light energy into electric energy
(B) converts electric energy into light energy
(C) stores light energy
(D) None of the above

17. The amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent is known as ____ in Chemistry.

(A) composition of solute
(B) concentration of solvent
(C) concentration of solute
(D) concentration of solution

18. How do COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response?

(A) By introducing live attenuated SARS-CoV-2 virus
(B) By introducing a real SARS-CoV-2 virus
(C) By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus
(D) By introducing antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 virus

19. Which of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity?

(A) Salted water
(B) Orange juice
(C) Lemon juice
(D) None of the above

20. The DNA double helix structure was discovered by

(A) James Watson and Francis Crick
(B) Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
(C) Linus Pauling
(D) Gregor Mendel

21. Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon would

(A) have different accelerations
(B) undergo a change in their inertia
(C) have same velocity at any instant
(D) experience forces of same magnitude

22. How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?

(A) By introducing a weakened or inactivated virus into the body
(B) By directly attacking and destroying pathogens in the body
(C) By placing the virus in a modified version of a different virus
(D) By entering directly into the cells and enabling them to create spike proteins

23. The process that continually adds new crust is

(A) subduction
(B) earthquake
(C) seafloor spreading
(D) convection

24. The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is called

(A) the theory of continental drift
(B) the theory of Pangaea
(C) the theory of plate tectonics
(D) the theory of plate boundaries

25. What is the expanded form of the term ‘mRNA’ that has been widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?

(A) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid
(B) Mutant Ribonucleic Acid
(C) Modified Ribonucleic Acid
(D) Mnemonic Ribonucleic Acid

26. An AC current can be produced by

(A) choke coil
(B) dynamo
(C) transformer
(D) None of the above

27. Current density is

(A) a scalar quantity
(B) a vector quantity
(C) dimensionless
(D) None of the above

28. What is the basis of most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry?

(A) Pharmacological effect
(B) Molecular targets
(C) Chemical structure
(D) None of the above

29. Which of the following slows down the reaction rate?

(A) Catalytic promoter
(B) Homogeneous catalyst
(C) Heterogeneous catalyst
(D) None of the above

30. Input and output nerves meet at

(A) liver
(B) central nervous system
(C) heart
(D) None of the above

31. In the context of ‘Shipwreck Tourism’, shipwrecks in Indian waters have been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grand Island. Where are these locations?

(A) Off the coast of Goa
(B) Off the coast of Lakshadweep
(C) Off the coast of Tamil Nadu
(D) Off the coast of Odisha

32. The G20 members represent

around 85% of the global GDP
about 50% of the global trade
about two-thirds of world population

Which of the above statistics is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2

33. Who is the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group?

(A) Sergei Shoigu
(B) Yevgeny Prigozhin
(C) Aleksandr Lukashenko
(D) Volodymyr Zelenskyy

34. The Global Gender Gap Report is released by

(A) the World Bank
(B) the UN Women
(C) the World Economic Forum
(D) the UNDP

35. Which one of the following statements regarding Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom is correct?

(A) She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.
(B) She reigned for 68 years and died at the age of 94 years.
(C) She reigned for 72 years and died at the age of 92 years.
(D) She reigned for 66 years and died at the age of 90 years.

36. What was the theme of DefExpo-2022, held in Gujarat?

(A) India: The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub
(B) Path to Pride
(C) Synergy for Defence
(D) Aatmanirbharta

37. The three-day celebration of Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in which country?

(A) Chile
(B) Nepal
(C) Germany
(D) Myanmar

38. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘White House’:

The address of the White House is 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue.
It is the official residence and workplace of the President of USA.
On November 1, 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building.
It is a symbol of American Democracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

39. ‘Net Metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting

(A) the installation of CNG kits in motorcars
(B) the installation of water meters in urban households
(C) a billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers for the electricity they add to the grid
(D) the use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households

40. Match List—I with List—II:

List—I (Colour)	List—II (Combination)
a. Magenta	1. Green and blue
b. Teal	2. Red and blue
c. Mauve	3. Blue, green and white
d. Cyan	4. Blue, red and white

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A)      2 3 4 1
(B)      2 4 3 1
(C)     4 2 1 3
(D)     3 4 2 1

41. What is the name of the deep-sea submersible that imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage?

(A) Alvin
(B) Falcon
(C) Trident
(D) Titan

42. Match List—I with List—II:

List—I (Footwear/Fashion Accessory)	List—II (Description)
a. Beret	1. A type of men’s footwear
b. Stilettos	2. A type of sunglasses
c. Aviators	3. A type of hat
d. Chignon	4. A type of women’s footwear
e. Brogue	5. A type of hairstyle

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d e

(A)      3 2 1 4 5
(B)      3 4 2 5 1
(C)     5 3 2 4 1
(D)     1 2 3 4 5

43. Where did the former President of the USA give his interview recently?

(A) Rome
(B) Sarajevo
(C) Athens
(D) Amsterdam

44. In the context of sports, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Flushing Meadows : French Open
Venus Rosewater Dish : Wimbledon Trophy (Women)
Roland Garros : US Open
Australian Open (Women) : Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4

45. The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?

(A) 40
(B) 233
(C) 576
(D) 984

46. Which State Government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action plan for the protection of vultures in India?

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Sikkim
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya

47. Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys), one of the largest tortoise species in mainland Asia, were recently released into which National Park of India?

(A) Ntangki National Park
(B) Periyar National Park
(C) Pench National Park
(D) Khangchendzonga National Park

48. Which country has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?

(A) USA
(B) Australia
(C) Germany
(D) Russia

49. India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won which medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo?

(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Bronze
(D) None of the above

50. The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?

(A) Grade 6
(B) Grade 8
(C) Grade 10
(D) Grade 12

51. India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which country?

(A) UAE
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) UK

52. The Plain Language Act was passed by which of the following countries recently which requires Government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites?

(A) Australia
(B) Ireland
(C) New Zealand
(D) Germany

53. Tillyardembi Fossils of the world’s first plant pollinators, called Tillyardembiids, were discovered recently in which country?

(A) Greece
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China

54. The ‘Lisbon Declaration’, which made headlines, is associated with the conservation of which entity?

(A) Air
(B) Mountains
(C) Oceans
(D) Freshwater glaciers

55. Which of the following animals was not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilization?

(A) Bull
(B) Horse
(C) Elephant
(D) None of the above

56. Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

(A) Qutb Minar
(B) Red Fort
(C) India Gate
(D) None of the above

57. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of

(A) England
(B) Switzerland
(C) Ireland
(D) None of the above

58. Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in

(A) 1974
(B) 1975
(C) 1976
(D) None of the above

59. Which among the following currencies is the costliest?

(A) Euro
(B) Pound Sterling
(C) US Dollar
(D) None of the above

60. Bihar Government has planned to make Bihar State ‘pollution-free’ by reducing carbon emissions by which year?

(A) 2022
(B) 2024
(C) 2030
(D) 2047

61. In Indian art, the construction of ‘Stupa’, ‘Chaitya’ and ‘Vihara’ is related to which of the following?

(A) Ajivika sect
(B) Vaishnava sect
(C) Buddhism
(D) Shaiva sect

62. In the context of Indian handicrafts, what is ‘Sujini’ in Bihar?

(A) A type of glassware
(B) A metal craft
(C) A type of embroidery
(D) A type of clay pottery

63. Consider the following statements regarding the Vikramshila University in Bihar:

It was located in the present-day Banka district of Bihar.
It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty.
The ‘Vajrayana’ sect of Buddhism flourished here.
Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar and Philosophy were also taught here.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

64. Consider the following statements:

The arrival of Babur into India led to the

introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
introduction of arch and dome in the region’s architecture
establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
introduction of cannons in warfare

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) None of the above

65. Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?

(A) Calicut
(B) Surat
(C) Cambay
(D) Broach

66. ‘Ashta Pradhan’ was a Council of Ministers

(A) in the Gupta administration
(B) in the Chola administration
(C) in the Maratha administration
(D) in the Vijayanagara administration

67. The painting of ‘Bodhisattva Padmapani’ is located at

(A) Bagh
(B) Ellora
(C) Ajanta
(D) Badami

68. Consider the following statements:

Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Harsha.
Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

69. Match List—I with List—II:

List—I	List—II
a. Charaka	1. Mathematics
b. Brahmagupta	2. Medicine
c. Varahamihira	3. Playwright
d. Vishakhadatta	4. Astrology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A)      2 1 4 3
(B)      1 2 3 4
(C)     3 2 4 1
(D)     1 4 3 2

70. Who among the following introduced the Persian festival Nowruz in India?

(A) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Balban
(D) Iltutmish

71. Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis made devotional religion popular in

(A) Northern India
(B) Southern India
(C) Eastern India
(D) Western India

72. Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Dispatch of 1854:

It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies.
It laid stress on female education and vocational training.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

73. The Maithili language was started to develop during the reign of which of the following?

(A) Chero dynasty
(B) Oiniwar dynasty
(C) Karnat dynasty
(D) Pithipatis

74. Which city served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period?

(A) Rajagriha
(B) Campa
(C) Vaishali
(D) Pataliputra

75. Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act is/are correct?

It was enacted by Lord Lytton.
It came to be known as a ‘Gagging Act’.
The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) 1, 2 and 3

76. Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 are correct?

It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances.
Provincial Governments were empowered to administer certain services.
It attempted to rectify existing imparity.
It focussed on the actual needs of the Provinces.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. Nitisara, an early book of politics, was written by

(A) Kautilya
(B) Kamandaka
(C) Charaka
(D) None of them

78. Futuhat-i-Alamgiri was written by

(A) Ishwardas Nagar
(B) Bhimsen
(C) Haridas
(D) None of them

79. According to Chinese source, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to which of the following Gupta Kings for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?

(A) Chandragupta I
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) None of them

80. When was Bihar first separated from the Bengal Presidency under the British-ruled India?

(A) 1912
(B) 1936
(C) 1947
(D) None of the above

81. Consider the following statements:

Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area.
It is one of the great lakes of Africa.
It is bordered by four countries—Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda and Kenya.
The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

82. Consider the following statements regarding ‘heat wave’:

Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C or more for plains.
Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for hilly regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Match List–I with List–II:

List–I (Explorer)	List–II (Birthplace)
a. Christopher Columbus	1. Portugal
b. Jacques Cartier	2. United Kingdom
c. Sir Francis Drake	3. Italy
d. Ferdinand Magellan	4. France

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A)      3 4 2 1
(B)      1 2 4 3
(C)     3 4 1 2
(D)     1 4 2 3

84. The emirates of UAE are

(A) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah
(B) Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Jeddah, Kuwait, Bahrain, Umm Al-Quwain
(C) Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah, Riyadh, Dammam, Taif, Dubai
(D) Sharjah, Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Fujairah, Dubai, Bahrain, Kuwait

85. The river Subarnarekha originates near which of the following villages?

(A) Ormanjhi
(B) Mandar
(C) Hehal
(D) Nagri

86. Which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are in Bihar?

Valmiki National Park
Dudhwa National Park
Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary
Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

87. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Gangetic Dolphin’:

The Gangetic River Dolphin has been categorized as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN’s Red List.
It does not have a crystalline eye lens rendering it effectively blind.
Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation.
It has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

88. The other name of river Gandak is

(A) Burhi Gandak
(B) Mahananda
(C) Narayani
(D) Punpun

89. Gold is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?

(A) Munger
(B) Saran
(C) Siwan
(D) Jamui

90. The Triveni Canal has been constructed on which of the following rivers?

(A) Kosi
(B) Sone
(C) Gandak
(D) Mayurakshi

91. Assertion (A): Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil.

Reason (R): At some points of time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.

Select the correct answer.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) A is true but R is false

92. Bihar’s geographical structure consists of rock systems. Match the descriptions with their rock systems:

Rock System	Description
a. Dharwar rock system	1. Created by the rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers
b. Vindhyan rock system	2. Can be found in the West Champaran district
c. Quaternary rock system	3. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system
d. Tertiary rock system	4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite and shale are the main constituents of this rock system

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A)      3 4 1 2
(B)      1 3 2 4
(C)     2 3 4 1
(D)     4 2 3 1

93. Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising twenty-one islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?

(A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(C) Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve
(D) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

94. What is the local time of Thimphu (Bhutan) located at 90° East longitude when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon?

(A) 6:00 p.m.
(B) 4:00 p.m.
(C) 7:00 p.m.
(D) 6:00 a.m.

95. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Natural gas is found in Dharwar rock formation.
(B) Mica is found in Kodarma.
(C) Cuddapah series is famous for diamonds.
(D) Petroleum reserves are found in Aravalli hills.

96. How many latitudes are there on the globe drawn at 1 degree interval?

(A) 180
(B) 178
(C) 179
(D) None of the above

97. The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is

(A) 300 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 30 m
(D) None of the above

98. On which plateau, the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other?

(A) Bundelkhand
(B) Baghelkhand
(C) Malwa
(D) None of the above

99. Which district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibet border?

(A) Uttarkashi
(B) Chamoli
(C) Almora
(D) None of the above

100. Where does the El Niño current flow?

(A) The Pacific Ocean
(B) The Indian Ocean
(C) The Bay of Bengal
(D) More than one of the above

101. Consider the following statements about the collegium system:

The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time.
The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system.
The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system.
The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

102. Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India:

It added three words to the Preamble—’Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’.
It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.
It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47.
It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

103. The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are

indications of primitive traits
distinctive culture
shyness of contact with the community at large
backwardness and geographical isolation

Which of the above are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

104. From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of the Fundamental Rights?

(A) Ireland
(B) United States of America
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Canada

105. Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 22

106. The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rest with which of the following entities?

(A) The President
(B) The Chief Minister of the State
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Parliament

107. The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?

(A) Scheduled Castes
(B) Religious Minorities
(C) Scheduled Tribes
(D) Linguistic Minorities

108. In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?

(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) Both (A) and (B)

109. Match the following political parties listed in List–I with their years of establishment in List–II:

List–I (Political Parties)	List–II (Years of Establishment)
a. Communist Party of India (Marxist)	1. 1964
b. Communist Party of India	2. 1998
c. Bahujan Samaj Party	3. 1925
d. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)	4. 1984

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A)      1 3 4 2
(B)      2 1 4 3
(C)     2 1 3 4
(D)     3 4 1 2

110. Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?

(A) Article 110 (1)
(B) Article 122 (2)
(C) Article 120 (1)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

111. The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include which of the following?

Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
Gold
Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Reserve Tranche Position

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All of the above

112. Consider the following statements about ‘Rules of Origin’:

Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product.
Rules of Origin help the custom agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product.
These are used for the purpose of trade statistics.
Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the sources of imports.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

113. Consider the following statements about infant mortality rate:

It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10000 live births.
The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189.6.
In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.
As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

114. Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables

individuals of a country to accumulate more capital
increasing the knowledge
increasing the skill levels
increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) Only 4

115. Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy:

Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due.
Insolvency refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.
Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 4
(D) Only 1 and 2

116. In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?

(A) 1956
(B) 1954
(C) 1952
(D) 1950

117. Consider the following statements about the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:

The scheme offers a production-linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components.
The scheme has two categories of applicants, namely, global companies and domestic companies.
The scheme shall extend an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, to eligible companies, for a period of six years.
The target segment under PLI shall include (i) laptops, (ii) tablets, (iii) all-in-one PCs, (iv) servers and (v) Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF).

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3

118. Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme:

It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines.
This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy.
CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.
The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

119. Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency?

The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with State affairs.
Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.
The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1, 3 and 4
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All of the above

120. Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy?

High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending
Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth
Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending
Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to reduction of export competitiveness

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

121. As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India?

It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector.
It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels.
It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.
It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 4

122. What is the current population of Gaya district of Bihar?

(A) 598000
(B) 320000
(C) 780000
(D) 234000

123. Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct?

(A) The expenditure is on interest payments.
(B) The expenditure is on science and technology.
(C) The expenditure is on agriculture.
(D) None of the above

124. Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India?

(A) It has expanded trade in goods and services.
(B) It has led to greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment.
(C) Increase in exports is greater than increase in imports.
(D) None of the above

125. Consider the following statements about the latest developments in the Union Government finances:

The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9.2 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21.
The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7.7 percent of GDP in FY22.
The revenue collection over the last two years has gone down.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) None of the above

126. Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?

The military superiority of the British
The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology
There was a lack of support from all the sections of society

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above

127. The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917 was

(A) Muzaffar Ahmad
(B) Batak Mian
(C) Mir Bakawal
(D) None of them

128. The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–1938 was organized by whom?

(A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(B) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
(D) Peer Ali Khan

129. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom Struggle:

Home Rule Movement
Surat Split
Kheda Satyagraha
Minto-Morley Reforms

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

(A) 1–3–2–4
(B) 2–4–1–3
(C) 1–4–2–3
(D) 2–3–1–4

130. Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?

(A) The Strachey Commission
(B) The Arms Act
(C) The Vernacular Press Act
(D) The Ilbert Bill

131. Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?

(A) The Treaty of Allahabad
(B) The Treaty of Sugauli
(C) The Treaty of Bassein
(D) The Treaty of Salbai

132. The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year?

(A) 1635
(B) 1632
(C) 1643
(D) 1648

133. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Bardoli Satyagraha
(C) Ahmedabad Strike
(D) Rowlatt Satyagraha

134. The Quit India Movement in 1942 witnessed significant contributions from leaders of Bihar. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Shri Krishna Singh
(C) Anugrah Narayan Sinha
(D) Ram Manohar Lohia

135. In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step to address the issue?

(A) Appointed Mahatma Gandhi as the Governor of Champaran
(B) Enforced strict curfew and imposed Martial Law in the region
(C) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee
(D) Declared Champaran as an independent State

136. Match List–I with List–II:

List–I	List–II
a. Servants of India Society	1. Debendranath Tagore
b. Tattwabodhini Sabha	2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Atmiya Sabha	3. Ram Mohan Roy
	4. Keshab Chandra Sen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c

(A)     2 1 3
(B)     2 4 3
(C)     1 2 3
(D)     1 4 3

137. Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which of the following States of India?

(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh

138. Who among the following was not the member of the Cabinet Mission?

(A) P. Lawrence
(B) A. V. Alexander
(C) J. Andrew
(D) None of them

139. “The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of safety valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats.” Which leader said that?

(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) None of them

140. In which of the following Indian National Congress Sessions, the resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights were passed for the first time?

(A) Surat Session—1907
(B) Gaya Session—1922
(C) Karachi Session—1931
(D) None of the above

141. In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is written as ‘ $+ * %’ and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘# % ÷ ×’. How will the word ‘MADE’ be written in that code language?

(A) $ ÷ × %
(B) * ÷ $ %
(C) * ÷ × %
(D) # ÷ × %

142. Q travels towards East. M travels towards North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels towards right of Q. Which of the following is definitely true?

(A) M and S travel in the opposite directions
(B) S travels towards West
(C) T travels towards North
(D) M and S travel in the same direction

143. A man ‘Ramesh’, who owns a plot of land of 100 square yards, increases his plot of land by acquiring 10% more from his neighbour ‘Suresh’, who also owns 100 square yards land. After 2 years, he sells back 10% of the total plot to the neighbour. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Ramesh’s land is more than Suresh
(B) Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh
(C) Both are equal
(D) None of the above

144. Find the odd pair among the following options.

(A) Millinery : Hats
(B) Brewery : Alcohol
(C) Stationery : Paper
(D) Snobbery : Shoes

145. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

132 156 ? 210 240 272

(A) 196
(B) 182
(C) 199
(D) 204

146. Select the missing number from the given alternatives:

(A) 56
(B) 77
(C) 66
(D) 63

147. Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement.

Statement :

In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200, of which 160 runs were made by spinners.

Conclusions :

80% of the team consisted of spinners.
The opening batsmen were spinners.

Select the correct answer.

(A) Only 1 follows the statement
(B) Only 2 follows the statement
(C) Both 1 and 2 follow the statement
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement

148. In a code language, if GREAT is written as 718222620 and MONK is written as 13121411, then how will VIGOROUS be written in the same language?

(A) 22187121812619
(B) 21177121811619
(C) 22187131813620
(D) 21187111711620

149. Find the odd one in the following groups:

Q, W, Z, B
B, H, K, M
W, C, G, J
M, S, V, X

(A) Q, W, Z, B
(B) M, S, V, X
(C) W, C, G, J
(D) B, H, K, M

150. Four branches of a company are located at M, N, O and P. M is in the North of N at a distance of 4 km; P is in the South of O at a distance of 2 km; N is in the Southeast of O by 1 km. What is the distance between M and P in km?

(A) 5·34
(B) 6·74
(C) 28·5
(D) None of the above

ANSWER KEY

Q No.	A Key	Q No.	A Key	Q No.	A Key	Q No.	A Key	Q No.	A Key
1	D	31	A	61	C	91	A	121	D
2	A	32	B	62	C	92	A	122	Del
3	C	33	Del	63	C	93	A	123	A
4	C	34	C	64	C	94	A	124	C
5	D	35	A	65	B	95	B	125	A
6	D	36	B	66	C	96	C	126	C
7	C	37	D	67	C	97	C	127	B
8	C	38	D	68	D	98	B	128	C
9	B	39	C	69	A	99	C	129	B
10	C	40	A	70	C	100	A	130	D
11	D	41	D	71	A	101	D	131	A
12	C	42	B	72	C	102	C	132	B
13	D	43	C	73	C	103	D	133	C
14	A	44	D	74	A	104	B	134	B
15	B	45	C	75	D	105	C	135	C
16	A	46	A	76	D	106	A	136	A
17	D	47	A	77	B	107	C	137	C
18	A	48	A	78	A	108	B	138	C
19	D	49	A	79	B	109	A	139	B
20	A	50	A	80	A	110	C	140	C
21	C	51	B	81	D	111	D	141	C
22	C	52	C	82	D	112	D	142	D
23	C	53	C	83	A	113	C	143	B
24	C	54	C	84	A	114	D	144	D
25	A	55	B	85	D	115	C	145	B
26	B	56	C	86	A	116	A	146	B
27	B	57	C	87	D	117	D	147	D
28	B	58	B	88	C	118	B	148	A
29	D	59	B	89	D	119	A	149	C
30	B	60	Del	90	C	120	D	150	A

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